Angular momentum does not depend on where you put the reference point, as long as the system's total linear momentum is zero — and that is exactly the situation here.Set up axes so the common direction of the two lines is \(\displaystyle \hat x \) and the perpendicular direction joining them is \(\displaystyle \hat y \). Particle $\displaystyle 1$ moves with velocity \(\displaystyle \vec v_1 = v\hat x \) along one line; particle $\displaystyle 2$, on the parallel line a perpendicular distance \(\displaystyle d \) away, moves with velocity \(\displaystyle \vec v_2 = -v\hat x \) — same speed \(\displaystyle v \), opposite direction. Both particles have mass \(\displaystyle m \).
Step $\displaystyle 1$: the shift-of-origin rule for angular momentum.For a system of particles, the angular momentum about a point O is \(\displaystyle \vec L_O = \sum_i \vec r_i \times \vec p_i \), where \(\displaystyle \vec r_i \) is the position vector of particle \(\displaystyle i \) measured from O and \(\displaystyle \vec p_i = m_i\vec v_i \) is its momentum. If a second point \(\displaystyle O' \) is displaced from O by a fixed vector \(\displaystyle \vec a \), every particle's position vector relative to \(\displaystyle O' \) is \(\displaystyle \vec r_i' = \vec r_i - \vec a \), so
\[\vec L_{O'} = \sum_i \vec r_i' \times \vec p_i = \sum_i (\vec r_i - \vec a)\times \vec p_i = \sum_i \vec r_i \times \vec p_i \;-\; \vec a \times \sum_i \vec p_i \]
\[\vec L_{O'} = \vec L_O - \vec a \times \vec P, \qquad \vec P = \sum_i \vec p_i \ \text{(total linear momentum of the system)} \]
This is the general rule: angular momentum about two different points can differ only by \(\displaystyle -\vec a \times \vec P \). If the system's total momentum \(\displaystyle \vec P \) is zero, that extra term vanishes for
every choice of \(\displaystyle \vec a \) — so \(\displaystyle \vec L \) is the same about every point in space, not just the one point you happened to pick. This is the identity the whole proof rests on, so get it down before touching the two-particle setup.
Step $\displaystyle 2$: check that \(\displaystyle \vec P = 0 \) here.\[\vec P = m\vec v_1 + m\vec v_2 = mv\hat x + m(-v\hat x) = \vec 0 \]
The two particles have equal mass and equal speed but opposite velocity, so their momenta cancel exactly. By Step $\displaystyle 1$, this alone already guarantees \(\displaystyle \vec L_{O'} = \vec L_O \) for any two points \(\displaystyle O \) and \(\displaystyle O' \) — which is precisely the result the question asks you to show. What remains is to pin down what that common value of \(\displaystyle \vec L \) actually is.
Step $\displaystyle 3$: compute \(\displaystyle \vec L \) about one convenient point, and watch it survive unchanged.Take the reference point O at particle $\displaystyle 2$'s own instantaneous position, so \(\displaystyle \vec r_2 = \vec 0 \). Let \(\displaystyle s \) be how far ahead particle $\displaystyle 1$ is along the \(\displaystyle \hat x \) direction at this instant; since the two lines stay a fixed perpendicular distance \(\displaystyle d \) apart,
\[\vec r_1 = s\hat x + d\hat y \]
Using \(\displaystyle \vec L = \vec r_1 \times \vec p_1 + \vec r_2\times \vec p_2 \), with \(\displaystyle \vec p_1 = mv\hat x \) and \(\displaystyle \vec r_2 = \vec 0 \):
\[\vec L = (s\hat x + d\hat y)\times (mv\hat x) = mvs\,(\hat x\times\hat x) + mvd\,(\hat y \times \hat x) \]
Since \(\displaystyle \hat x\times\hat x = \vec 0 \) and \(\displaystyle \hat y\times\hat x = -\hat z \) (the standard right-hand-rule identity, the reverse of \(\displaystyle \hat x\times\hat y=\hat z \)),
\[\vec L = -mvd\,\hat z \]
The along-the-line coordinate \(\displaystyle s \) has cancelled completely — it never appears in the final expression. That is the mark of a genuinely position-independent result: it means \(\displaystyle \vec L \) does not change as the particles slide along their lines with time, and (by Step $\displaystyle 1$, since \(\displaystyle \vec P=\vec 0 \)) it also does not change if the reference point O is moved anywhere else in space, on either line or off both of them.
The direction \(\displaystyle -\hat z \) is perpendicular to the plane containing the two parallel lines — along the axis you get by curling the right-hand fingers from \(\displaystyle \vec r_1 \) toward \(\displaystyle \vec p_1 \), i.e. into the page if \(\displaystyle \hat x \) points along particle $\displaystyle 1$'s velocity and \(\displaystyle \hat y \) points from particle $\displaystyle 2$'s line across to particle $\displaystyle 1$'s line. The magnitude is \(\displaystyle mvd \), built only from the fixed perpendicular separation \(\displaystyle d \), never from how far along the lines the particles happen to be.
This is the answer the question is after: the two-particle system's angular momentum has magnitude \(\displaystyle mvd \), directed perpendicular to the plane of the two lines, and this value is exactly the same no matter which point in space is chosen as the reference — because the system's total linear momentum is zero, so shifting the reference point by any vector \(\displaystyle \vec a \) changes \(\displaystyle \vec L \) only by the term \(\displaystyle -\vec a\times\vec P \), which vanishes identically.
Answer: \(\displaystyle \vec L = mvd \), directed perpendicular to the plane containing the two lines, and this value is the same about every point in space, since the particles' equal-and-opposite momenta make the system's total linear momentum \(\displaystyle \vec P=\vec 0 \), so \(\displaystyle \vec L_{O'}-\vec L_O=-\vec a\times\vec P=\vec 0 \) for any shift \(\displaystyle \vec a \) of the reference point.