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Mathematics · 2014

JEE Main · 12 April 2014, Shift 1 · Q90

Let p, q, r denote arbitrary statements. Then the logically equivalent of the statement p ⇒( q r ) is:

Let p, q, r denote arbitrary statements. Then the logically equivalent of the statement $\displaystyle \mathrm{p} \Rightarrow(\mathrm{q} \vee \mathrm{r})$ is :
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