Mathematics · 2022
JEE Main · 26 June 2022, Shift 2 · Q20
Let r ∈{p, q, ∼ p, ∼ q} be such that the logical statement r (∼ p) ⇒(p ∧ q) r is a tautology. Then r is equal to:
Let $\displaystyle r \in\{p, q, \sim p, \sim q\}$ be such that the logical statement $\displaystyle r \vee(\sim p) \Rightarrow(p \wedge q) \vee r$ is a tautology. Then $\displaystyle r$ is equal to :
Official answer
(3)
$\displaystyle \sim p$
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JEE Main 2022 Mathematics question, with the answer from NTA’s final answer key. Where our answers come from.